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Is this question inaccurate in general? (Wharton Casebook

Question: What is the Optimal Price for 'Hybrid Vials' ?

Traditional vaccine vial cost to customer = $14/vial

Traditional vaccine vial COGS*= $7/vial

Syringe cost to customer = $6/syringe

Hybrid vaccine vial COGS = $10/vial

The traditional vaccine involves buying both the vaccine vial and the syringe

Answer Given:

Option 1: Keep margin same

Current margin for traditional vaccine = (14-7) = $7 per vaccine

Keeping margin same, price for new hybrid vaccine = 10+7 = $17 per vaccine

Note that this price is less than what customers currently pay, ask why firm should not increase the price.

Option 2 : Keep end price to customer same

Current price = 14 + 6 = $20 per vaccine [Customer needs to buy both traditional vaccine vial and syringe

currently]

COGS for new hybrid vaccine = $10 per vaccine

Margin for new hybrid vaccine = 20-10 = $10 per vaccine

Note that since the price is same as currently paid, ask why customers should switch to the hybrid vaccine.

My thoughts

This doesn't seem to make much sense to me, especially since COGS from syringes aren't given. Doesn't this mean our margin calculations aren't being properly reflected of that? The only thing that makes sense is Option 2 (keeping the end price the same), but then we can't even compare it to current margins (due to again, the absense of the syringe COGS

Am I misunderstanding? Thank you

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