Hey there,
I wonder why it is reasonable to calculate the savings resulting from a consolidation of suppliers by simply multiplying the 20% with the 20m transport costs. The transportation costs of 20m are based on Y3, where the client has 660m in revenue. If we're cutting out the low-margin category (price <5 EUR) that accounts for 15% of the revenue in Y3, we clearly sell less units, therefore having a lower number of deliveries. In my understanding, this should lead to lower transportation costs (less deliveries >> less transporation costs).
While our client sells less entities, we assume the same transportation costs which is hardly reasonable imo.
What do you think?
Best regards