I have a question about the calculation of the allocated fixed overhead costs. When calculating the margin of 8% only fixed costs (Personnel and Store rent) are taken into consideration and variable costs e.g. purchase prices are ignored. Therefore, the 8% only represents the profit margin after fixed costs if I am not mistaken. When calculating the fixed overhead costs, however, the 8% margin is applied as if it represents the profit margin after all costs (including purchase prices). For me, this seems inconsistent and I don´t really understand why this is possible.
Company case by
Bain & Company
Bain Case: BeautyCo – Where Did the Profits Go?
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